More Variety at Walmart Makes You NOT Poor

Am I reading this right? The Economist reports on a study by two U of Chicago professor who claims that a closer look at wage equality standards shows that the Rich/Poor gap is minimal or non-existant! It's been accepted that the wage gap has increased since the 80's, but the new study takes a look at the inflation rates and shopping habits of the Rich and the Poor, respectively, and concludes that all is well. Essentially, the rich choose to spend more money on better goods (like organic milk) and on services (as opposed to food, etc.) - where prices have gone up - so their buying power has decreased. The poor, on the other hand, buy mostly durable goods (food) and cheap chineses products (which are cheap and multiplying), so their buying power is about the same as it was.

To me, that doesn't explain that the poor are any closer to the rich in what they can actually buy. The fact that the rich have money to choose expensive food and nice amenities, while the poor are stuck with a broad variety of bad, cheap chinese food and products doesn't mean the wage gap is any closer - it just shows what goes on in the real world! Poor people are stuck with cheap goods and the rich have the option to buy better stuff. The study seems to imply that the rich could be buying cheaper stuff (duh!) - but they don't (duh!) - and when you compare what the rich people could be buying with the poor there isn't that much difference. This way you are really letting the rich create their own benchmark: if they all buy yachts - which have high inflation - then that cancels out any minimal rise in Ramen noodles and supports the claim that the wage gap is minimal. This is NUTS. If anything, the choices in and of themselves should prove the expanding wage gap - that the rich are buying more yachts and the poor are still buying Ramen.

Someone who's better at this than me please set me straight. It's a good read in any event.